2009-11-25 18:34:15 UTC
The judge ruled that a ban on same-sex marriage violated Argentina’s Constitution.
http://www.nytimes.com/2009/11/17/world/americas/17argentina.html
"The ruling sets no precedent beyond this case, but other gay and lesbian couples may cite it in court if their requests for marriage licenses are denied."
Sets no precedent beyond this case?
Why would this only apply to one couple, but not others?
Why doesn't any precedent exist?
Why is gay marriage only allowed for one particular couple, while it is not allowed for other gay couples?
Isn't precedent supposed to exist?